Hey,I’m trying to understand something very simple in the text. In Devarim. 18:15 it says ‘מִקִּרְבְּךָ מֵאַחֶיךָ’ — from your brothers. But just a couple verses later, 18:18 switches and says ‘מִקֶּרֶב אֲחֵיהֶם’ — from their brothers. If the Torah meant only Israelites in both places, then why does it change the wording? Hebrew is precise — it doesn’t randomly switch pronouns. ‘Your brothers’ clearly refers to Israel. But ‘their brothers’ is the exact same phrase used elsewhere in the Torah for the children of Ishmael and Esau — literally the other descendants of Abraham. So my question is: if the Torah itself opens the door to a prophet coming from their brothers, why do we completely deny the possibility of a non-Israelite prophet — like Muhammad or even Jesus? If the Torah uses two different phrases, why should we pretend they mean the same thing?

ב"ה Shalom, The reason that in one place it says "from among your brothers" and then "from their brothers" is a simple grammatical explanation allowing no one room whatsoever for other prophets especially in a place where the Torah is clearly warning against false prophets. Now the grammatical explanation. In verse 15 , G-d is speaking to Moses in the second person, therefore the reference "Bnei Yisrael" is "your brothers". While in verse 18, Moshe is quoting G-d, who is then referring to Bnei Yisrael in the 3rd person, therefore "their brothers". All the best