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Rabbi Yoel Lieberman

Av 3, 5773
if i have a glass coffee jar filled with coffee and the when it was empty i filed it p again with coffee w/o toiveling the jar before is there a problem with the coffee am i still allowed to use it?
You are allowed to use the coffee with no problem. The non- toiveled jar does not the make coffee not kosher. However allow me to explain and clarify something for you and other potential readers. There are two issues. One is the requirement to toivel dishes which is for the sake of bringing the dish which is being toiveled to a level of kedusha= holiness. This is not because there is anything non-kosher is absorbed in the jar. For this requirement though, only a mikveh for dishes does the job. The not toiveled dish though DOES NOT make the contents not kosher. On the other hand using a dish which was not toiveled even a hundred times does not take away the requirement to toivel the dish (חכמת אדם עג :כ). In addition, though some Rabbis hold that when using a jar manufactured by goyim for second use once the first contents are emptied it must be toiveled, others hold that it is not required since it is only a minority who do so and the minority cant render the jar the regular definition of a "kli" which requires toiveling. טבילת כלים ד:יג- הערה יט, ציץ אליעזר ח"ח סי' כ ) כ) (The other issue is when someone, for example, puts something dairy of on a meat plate. In this case the plate must be koshered by boiling water. Placing the dish in the mikveh in this case is to no avail.
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